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The Counter-Terrorism (International Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019

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2019 No. 573

Exiting The European Union

Sanctions

The Counter-Terrorism (International Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019

Made14th March 2019
Laid before Parliament15th March 2019
Coming into force in accordance with regulation 1(2)
The Secretary of State M1, in exercise of the powers conferred by sections 1(1)(a) and (c) and (3), 3(1)(a), (b)(i) and (d)(i), 4, 5, 9(2)(a), 10(2)(a) and (c), (3) and (4), 11(2) to (9), 15(2)(a) and (b), (3), (4)(b), (5) and (6), 16, 17(2) to (9), 19, 20, 21(1), 54(1) and (2)(a), 56(1) and 62(4) and (5) of, and paragraphs 2(a)(i), 4(a)(i), 5(a)(i), 6(a)(i), 10(a)(i), 11(a)(i), 13(a), (g), (k), (m), (w), 14(a), 20, 21 and 27 of Schedule 1 to, the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 M2, and having decided, upon consideration of the matters set out in section 2(2) and 56(1) of that Act, that it is appropriate to do so, makes the following Regulations:C1

PART 1 General

I1I771 Citation and commencement

1 These Regulations may be cited as the Counter-Terrorism (International Sanctions) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019.
2 These Regulations come into force in accordance with regulations made by the Secretary of State under section 56 of the Act.

I2I782 Interpretation

In these Regulations—
  • “the Act” means the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018;
  • “arrangement” includes any agreement, understanding, scheme, transaction or series of transactions, whether or not legally enforceable (but see paragraph 12 of the Schedule to these Regulations for meaning of that term in that Schedule);
  • “CEMA” means the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 M3;
  • “the Commissioners” means the Commissioners for Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs;
  • “conduct” includes acts and omissions;
  • “director disqualification licence” means a licence under regulation 31A;
  • “document” includes information recorded in any form and, in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form, references to its production include producing a copy of the information in legible form;
  • “the EU autonomous ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida) Regulation” means Council Regulation (EU) 2016/1686 of 20 September 2016 imposing additional restrictive measures directed against ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaeda and natural and legal persons, entities or bodies associated with them, as it has effect in EU law;
  • “resolution 1373” means resolution 1373 (2001) adopted by the Security Council on 28 September 2001;
  • “Treasury licence” means a licence under regulation 31(1);
  • “United Kingdom person” has the same meaning as in section 21 of the Act.

I3I1123 Application of prohibitions and requirements outside the United Kingdom

1 A United Kingdom person may contravene a relevant prohibition by conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.
2 Any person may contravene a relevant prohibition by conduct in the territorial sea.
3 In this regulation a “relevant prohibition” means any prohibition imposed by—
a regulation 9(2) (confidential information),
b Part 3 (finance),
c Part 5 (trade), or
d a condition of a Treasury licence.
4 A United Kingdom person may comply, or fail to comply, with a relevant requirement by conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.
5 Any person may comply, or fail to comply, with a relevant requirement by conduct in the territorial sea.
6 In this regulation a “relevant requirement” means any requirement imposed—
a by or under Part 7 (information and records), or by reason of a request made under a power conferred by that Part, or
b by a condition of a Treasury licence.
7 Nothing in this regulation is to be taken to prevent a relevant prohibition or a relevant requirement from applying to conduct (by any person) in the United Kingdom.

I4I794 Purposes

1 The regulations contained in this instrument that are made under section 1 of the Act have the following purposes—
a compliance with the relevant UN obligations, and
b the additional purpose of furthering the prevention of terrorism M4 in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, otherwise than by compliance with the relevant UN obligations.
2 In this regulation, “the relevant UN obligations” means the obligations the United Kingdom has by virtue of paragraphs 1 and 2 of resolution 1373.

PART 2 Designation of persons

I5I805 Power to designate persons

1 The Secretary of State may designate persons M5 by name in accordance with regulation 5A (conditions for the designation of persons by name), for the purposes of any of the following—
a regulations 11 to 15 (asset freeze etc.);
aa regulation 16A (director disqualification sanctions).
b regulation 17 (immigration);
c regulations 19 to 26 (trade).
2 The Secretary of State may designate different persons for the purposes of different provisions mentioned in paragraph (1).

5A Conditions for the designation of persons by name

1 The Secretary of State may choose whether to designate a person under regulation 5 (power to designate persons) under—
a the standard procedure, or
b the urgent procedure.
2 Paragraph (3) applies where the Secretary of State chooses to designate a person under regulation 5 under the standard procedure.
3 The Secretary of State may not designate a person except where condition A is met.
4 Condition A is that the Secretary of State has reasonable grounds to suspect that that person is an involved person.
5 Paragraphs (6) to (8) apply where the Secretary of State chooses to designate a person under regulation 5 under the urgent procedure.
6 The Secretary of State may designate a person where condition A is not met, but conditions B and C are met.
7 The person ceases to be a designated person at the end of the period of 56 days beginning with the day following the day on which the person became a designated person unless, within that period, the Secretary of State certifies that—
a condition A is met, or
b conditions B and C continue to be met.
8 Where the Secretary of State makes a certification under paragraph (7)(b), the designation ceases to have effect at the end of the period of 56 days beginning with the day immediately following the period mentioned in paragraph (7), unless within that period the Secretary of State certifies that condition A is met.
9 Condition B is that relevant provision (whenever made) applies to, or in relation to, the person under the law of—
a the United States of America;
b the European Union;
c Australia;
d Canada.
10 Condition C is that the Secretary of State considers that it is in the public interest to make designations under the urgent procedure.
11 For the purposes of condition B, “relevant provision” is provision that the Secretary of State considers—
a corresponds, or is similar, to the type of sanction or sanctions in these Regulations, or
b is made for purposes corresponding, or similar, to any purpose of any type of sanction or sanctions in these Regulations.
12 In this regulation, “involved person” has the meaning given in regulation 6 (designation criteria: meaning of “involved person”).

I6I816 Designation criteria: meaning of “involved person”

F481 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
2 For the purposes of regulation 5A (conditions for the designation of persons by name) an “involved person” means a person who—
a is or has been involved in terrorist activity,
b is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by a person who is or has been so involved,
c is acting on behalf of or at the direction of a person who is or has been so involved, or
d is a member of, or associated with, a person who is or has been so involved.
3 Any reference in this regulation to being involved in terrorist activity includes being so involved in whatever way and wherever any actions constituting the involvement take place, and in particular includes—
a being responsible for, engaging in, or providing support for, the commission, preparation or instigation of acts of terrorism,
b providing financial services, or making available funds or economic resources, for the purposes of terrorism,
c facilitating, promoting or encouraging terrorism,
d providing or receiving training for the purposes of terrorism,
e travelling or attempting to travel from or into the relevant territory for the purposes of terrorism,
f carrying out recruitment activities for a person who is involved in terrorism,
g being involved in the sale, supply or transfer of arms or material related to arms to a person who is involved in terrorism,
h engaging in trade of whatever description with a person who is involved in terrorism;
i being responsible for, engaging in, being complicit in, providing support for, or promoting, the abduction, enslavement, forced marriage or rape of, or sexual violence against, persons outside the relevant territory on behalf of, or in the name of, a person who is involved in terrorism;
j supporting or assisting any person who is known or believed by the person concerned to be involved in any activity as mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (i); or
k being involved in assisting the contravention or circumvention of any relevant provision.
4 In this regulation “recruitment activities” means—
a soliciting another person to—
i become a member of a person, other than an individual, involved in terrorism, or
ii participate in any act by, in conjunction with, in the name of, on behalf of or in support of a person involved in terrorism;
b soliciting or otherwise procuring funds for the purpose of financing the travel of a person solicited as mentioned in sub-paragraph (a);
c organising, providing support for or otherwise facilitating the travel of a person solicited as mentioned in sub-paragraph (a).
5 In this regulation—
  • being “associated with” a person includes pledging allegiance in whatever way to that person;
  • “promoting or encouraging” terrorism includes a reference to a person who promotes or encourages terrorism within the meaning of section 3 of the Terrorism Act 2000 M6;
  • “relevant provision” means—
    1. any provision of Part 3 (finance) or Part 5 (trade);
    2. any provision of the law of a country other than the United Kingdom made for purposes corresponding to a purpose of any provision of Part 3 or Part 5;
  • “relevant territory” means the United Kingdom and the territory of the Member States of the European Union.
6 Nothing in any sub-paragraph of paragraph (3) is to be taken to limit the meaning of any of the other sub-paragraphs of that paragraph.

I7I827 Meaning of “owned or controlled directly or indirectly”

1 A person who is not an individual (“C”) is “owned or controlled directly or indirectly” by another person (“P”) if either of the following two conditions is met (or both are met).
2 The first condition is that P—
a holds directly or indirectly more than 50% of the shares in C,
b holds directly or indirectly more than 50% of the voting rights in C, or
c holds the right directly or indirectly to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of C.
3 The Schedule to these Regulations contains provision applying for the purpose of interpreting paragraph (2).
4 The second condition is that it is reasonable, having regard to all the circumstances, to expect that P would (if P chose to) be able, in most cases or in significant respects, by whatever means and F3... whether directly or indirectly, to achieve the result that affairs of C are conducted in accordance with P's wishes.

I8I838 Notification and publicity where designation power used

1 Paragraph (2) applies where the Secretary of State—
a has made a designation under regulation 5, or
b has by virtue of section 22 of the Act varied or revoked a designation made under that regulation.
2 The Secretary of State—
a must without delay take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the designated person of the designation, variation or revocation, and
b must take steps to publicise the designation, variation or revocation.
3 The information given under paragraph (2)(a)—
a where the Secretary of State designates a person under the standard procedure, must include a statement of reasons;
b where the Secretary of State designates a person under the urgent procedure, must include a statement—
i that the designation is made under the urgent procedure,
ii identifying the relevant provision by reference to which the Secretary of State considers that condition B is met in relation to the person, and
iii setting out why the Secretary of State considers that condition C is met.
3A Where the Secretary of State designates a person under the urgent procedure, the Secretary of State must, after the end of the period mentioned in paragraph (7) of regulation 5A (conditions for the designation of persons by name) or, if the Secretary of State has made a certification under paragraph (7)(b) of that regulation, the period mentioned in paragraph (8) of that regulation, but otherwise without delay—
a in a case where the person ceases to be a designated person, take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the person that they have ceased to be a designated person, or
b in any other case, take such steps as are reasonably practicable to give the person a statement of reasons.
4 In this regulation, a “statement of reasons” means a brief statement of the matters that the Secretary of State knows, or has reasonable grounds to suspect, in relation to the person—
a in the case of a designation under the standard procedure, which have led the Secretary of State to make the designation, and
b in the case of a designation under the urgent procedure, as a result of which the person does not cease to be a designated person at the end of the period mentioned in regulation 5A(7) or (8) (as the case may be).
5 Matters that would otherwise be required by paragraph (4) to be included in a statement of reasons may be excluded from it where the Secretary of State considers that they should be excluded—
a in the interests of national security or international relations,
b for reasons connected with the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, or
c in the interests of justice.
6 The steps taken under paragraph (2)(b) must—
a unless one or more of the restricted publicity conditions is met, be steps to publicise generally—
i the designation, variation or revocation, and
ii in the case of a designation, the statement of reasons;
b if one or more of those conditions is met, be steps to inform only such persons as the Secretary of State considers appropriate of the designation, variation or revocation and (in the case of a designation) of the contents of the statement of reasons.
7 The “restricted publicity conditions” are as follows—
a the designation is of a person believed by the Secretary of State to be an individual under the age of 18;
b the Secretary of State considers that disclosure of the designation, variation or revocation should be restricted—
i in the interests of national security or international relations,
ii for reasons connected with the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, or
iii in the interests of justice.
8 Paragraph (9) applies if—
a when a designation is made, one or more of the restricted publicity conditions is met, but
b at any time when the designation has effect, it becomes the case that none of the restricted publicity conditions is met.
9 The Secretary of State must—
a take such steps as are reasonably practicable to inform the designated person that none of the restricted publicity conditions is now met, and
b take steps to publicise generally the designation and the statement of reasons relating to it.

I9I1139 Confidential information in certain cases where designation power used

1 Where the Secretary of State in accordance with regulation 8(6)(b) informs only certain persons of a designation, variation or revocation and (in the case of a designation) of the contents of the statement of reasons, the Secretary of State may specify that any of that information is to be treated as confidential.
2 A person (“P”) who—
a is provided with information that is to be treated as confidential in accordance with paragraph (1), or
b obtains such information,
must not, subject to paragraph (3), disclose it if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that the information is to be treated as confidential.
3 The prohibition in paragraph (2) does not apply to any disclosure made by P with lawful authority.
4 For this purpose information is disclosed with lawful authority only if and to the extent that—
a the disclosure is by, or is authorised by, the Secretary of State,
b the disclosure is by or with the consent of the person who is or was the subject of the designation,
c the disclosure is necessary to give effect to a requirement imposed under or by virtue of these Regulations or any other enactment, or
d the disclosure is required, under rules of court, tribunal rules or a court or tribunal order, for the purposes of legal proceedings of any description.
5 This regulation does not prevent the disclosure of information that is already, or has previously been, available to the public from other sources.
6 A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (2) commits an offence.
7 The High Court (in Scotland, the Court of Session) may, on the application of—
a the person who is the subject of the information, or
b the Secretary of State,
grant an injunction (in Scotland, an interdict) to prevent a breach of the prohibition in paragraph (2).
8 In paragraph (4)(c), “enactment” has the meaning given by section 54(6) of the Act.

PART 3 Finance

I10I11410 Meaning of “designated person” in Part 3

In this Part a “designated person” means a person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of regulations 11 to 15 (asset freeze etc.).

I11I11511 Asset-freeze in relation to designated persons

1 A person (“P”) must not deal with funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is dealing with such funds or economic resources.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
4 For the purposes of paragraph (1) a person “deals with” funds if the person—
a uses, alters, moves, transfers or allows access to the funds,
b deals with the funds in any other way that would result in any change in volume, amount, location, ownership, possession, character or destination, or
c makes any other change, including portfolio management, that would enable use of the funds.
5 For the purposes of paragraph (1) a person “deals with” economic resources if the person—
a exchanges the economic resources for funds, goods or services, or
b uses the economic resources in exchange for funds, goods or services (whether by pledging them as security or otherwise).
6 The reference in paragraph (1) to funds or economic resources that are “owned, held or controlled” by a person includes, in particular, a reference to—
a funds or economic resources in which the person has any legal or equitable interest, regardless of whether the interest is held jointly with any other person and regardless of whether any other person holds an interest in the funds or economic resources;
b any tangible property (other than real property), or bearer security, that is comprised in funds or economic resources and is in the possession of the person.
7 For the purposes of paragraph (1), funds or economic resources are to be treated as owned, held or controlled by a designated person if they are owned, held or controlled by a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
8 For the avoidance of doubt, the reference in paragraph (1) to a designated person includes P if P is a designated person.

I12I11612 Making funds or financial services available to designated persons

1 A person (“P”) must not make funds or financial services available directly or indirectly to a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the funds or financial services so available.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
4 The reference in paragraph (1) to making funds or financial services available indirectly to a designated person includes, in particular, a reference to making them available to a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.

I13I11713 Making funds or financial services available for the benefit of designated persons

1 A person (“P”) must not make funds or financial services available to any person for the benefit of a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the funds or financial services so available.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
3A The reference in paragraph (1) to making funds or financial services available to any person for the benefit of a designated person includes making funds or financial services available for the benefit of a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (and references to designated person in paragraph (4) are to be read accordingly).
4 For the purposes of this regulation—
a funds are made available for the benefit of a designated person only if that person thereby obtains, or is able to obtain, a significant financial benefit, and
b “financial benefit” includes the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.

I14I11814 Making economic resources available to designated persons

1 A person (“P”) must not make economic resources available directly or indirectly to a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect—
a that P is making the economic resources so available, and
b that the designated person would be likely to exchange the economic resources for, or use them in exchange for, funds, goods or services.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
4 The reference in paragraph (1) to making economic resources available indirectly to a designated person includes, in particular, a reference to making them available to a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.

I15I11915 Making economic resources available for the benefit of designated persons

1 A person (“P”) must not make economic resources available to any person for the benefit of a designated person if P knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P is making the economic resources so available.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.
3A The reference in paragraph (1) to making economic resources available to any person for the benefit of a designated person includes making economic resources available for the benefit of a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (and references to designated person in paragraph (4) are to be read accordingly).
4 For the purposes of paragraph (1)—
a economic resources are made available for the benefit of a designated person only if that person thereby obtains, or is able to obtain, a significant financial benefit, and
b “financial benefit” includes the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.

I16I12016 Circumventing etc. prohibitions

1 A person must not intentionally participate in activities knowing that the object or effect of them is, whether directly or indirectly—
a to circumvent any of the prohibitions in regulations 11 to 15, or
b to enable or facilitate the contravention of any such prohibition.
2 A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.

PART 3A Director disqualification sanctions

16A Director disqualification sanctions

A person who is designated under regulation 5 (power to designate persons) for the purposes of this regulation is a person subject to director disqualification sanctions for the purposes of—
a section 11A of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, and
b Article 15A of the Company Directors Disqualification (Northern Ireland) Order 2002.

PART 4 Immigration

I17I12117 Immigration

A person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of this regulation is an excluded person for the purposes of section 8B of the Immigration Act 1971 M7.

PART 5 Trade

I18I9818 Definitions (Trade)

1 Paragraphs 32 and 36 of Schedule 1 to the Act (trade sanctions) apply for the purpose of interpreting expressions in this Part.
2 In this Part any reference to the United Kingdom includes a reference to the territorial sea.
3 In this Part—
  • “brokering service” means any service to secure, or otherwise in relation to, an arrangement, including (but not limited to)—
    1. the selection or introduction of persons as parties or potential parties to the arrangement,
    2. the negotiation of an arrangement,
    3. the facilitation of anything that enables an arrangement to be entered into, and
    4. the provision of any assistance that in any way promotes or facilitates an arrangement;
  • “designated person” means a person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of regulations 19 to 26;
  • “military goods” means—
    1. any thing for the time being specified in Schedule 2 to the Export Control Order 2008 M8, other than any thing which is military technology, and
    2. any tangible storage medium on which military technology is recorded or from which it can be derived;
  • “military technology” means any thing for the time being specified in Schedule 2 to the Export Control Order 2008 which is described as software or technology; except in regulation 26, “technical assistance”, in relation to goods or technology, means—
    1. technical support relating to the repair, development, production, assembly, testing, use or maintenance of the goods or technology, or
    2. any other technical service relating to the goods or technology;
  • “transfer” has the meaning given by paragraph 37 of Schedule 1 to the Act.

I19I12219 Export of military goods

1 The export of military goods to, or for the benefit of, a designated person is prohibited.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).

I20I12320 Supply and delivery of military goods

1 A person must not directly or indirectly supply or deliver military goods from a third country to, or for the benefit of, a designated person.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the goods were supplied or delivered was a designated person.
4 In this regulation “third country” means a country that is not the United Kingdom or the Isle of Man.

I21I12421 Making military goods and military technology available

1 A person must not directly or indirectly make military goods or military technology available to, or for the benefit of, a designated person.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the goods or technology were made available was a designated person.

I22I12522 Transfer of military technology

1 A person must not transfer military technology to, or for the benefit of, a designated person.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the technology was transferred was a designated person.

I23I12623 Technical assistance relating to military goods and military technology

1 A person must not directly or indirectly provide technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology to, or for the benefit of, a designated person.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the technical assistance was provided was a designated person.

I24I12724 Financial services and funds relating to military goods and military technology

1 A person must not directly or indirectly provide financial services to, or for the benefit of, a designated person in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement whose object or effect is—
a the export of military goods,
b the direct or indirect supply or delivery of military goods,
c directly or indirectly making military goods or military technology available to a person,
d the transfer of military technology, or
e the direct or indirect provision of technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology.
2 A person must not directly or indirectly make funds available to, or for the benefit of, a designated person in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement mentioned in paragraph (1).
3 A person must not directly or indirectly provide financial services or funds in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement whose object or effect is—
a the export of military goods to, or for the benefit of, a designated person;
b the direct or indirect supply or delivery of military goods to, or for the benefit of, a designated person;
c directly or indirectly making military goods or military technology available to, or for the benefit of, a designated person;
d the transfer of military technology to, or for the benefit of, a designated person; or
e the direct or indirect provision of technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology to, or for the benefit of, a designated person.
4 Paragraphs (1) to (3) are subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
5 A person who contravenes a prohibition in any of paragraphs (1) to (3) commits an offence but—
a it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (1) (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the financial services were provided was a designated person;
b it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (2) (“P”) to show that P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the funds were made available was a designated person;
c it is a defence for a person charged with the offence of contravening paragraph (3) to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the financial services or funds (as the case may be) were provided in pursuance of or in connection with an arrangement mentioned in that paragraph.

I25I12825 Brokering services: non-UK activity relating to military goods and military technology

1 A person must not directly or indirectly provide brokering services in relation to an arrangement (“arrangement A”) whose object or effect is—
a the direct or indirect supply or delivery of military goods from a non-UK country to, of for the benefit of, a designated person;
b directly or indirectly making military goods available in a non-UK country for direct or indirect supply or delivery to, or for the benefit of, a designated person;
c directly or indirectly making military technology available in a non-UK country for transfer to, or for the benefit of, a designated person;
d the transfer of military technology from a place in a non-UK country to, or for the benefit of, a designated person;
e the direct or indirect provision, in a non-UK country, of technical assistance relating to military goods or military technology to, or for the benefit of, a designated person;
f the direct or indirect provision, in a non-UK country, of financial services—
i to, or for the benefit of, a designated person where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 24(1); or
ii where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 24(3);
g directly or indirectly making funds available in a non-UK country to, or for the benefit of, a designated person where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 24(1); or
h the direct or indirect provision of funds from a non-UK country, where arrangement A, or any other arrangement in connection with which arrangement A is entered into, is an arrangement mentioned in regulation 24(3);
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence to show that the person did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the brokering services were provided in relation to an arrangement mentioned in that paragraph.
4 In this regulation—
“non-UK country” means—
  1. for the purposes of paragraph (1)(a) and (b), a country that is not the United Kingdom or the Isle of Man;
  2. for the purposes of any other provision of paragraph (1), a country that is not the United Kingdom.

I26I12926 Enabling or facilitating conduct of armed hostilities

1 A person must not directly or indirectly provide to, or for the benefit of, a designated person—
a technical assistance,
b financial services or funds, or
c brokering services in relation to an arrangement whose object or effect is to provide, in a non-UK country, technical assistance, financial services or funds,
where such provision enables or facilitates the conduct of armed hostilities.
2 Paragraph (1) is subject to Part 6 (exceptions and licences).
3 A person who contravenes the prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence, but it is a defence for a person charged with that offence (“P”) to show that—
a P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the person to whom, or for whose benefit, the technical assistance, financial services or funds or brokering services were provided was a designated person; or
b P did not know and had no reasonable cause to suspect that the provision as mentioned in paragraph (1) would enable or facilitate the conduct of armed hostilities.
4 In this regulation—
  • “non-UK country” means a country that is not the United Kingdom.
  • “technical assistance” means the provision of technical support or any other technical service.
5 Nothing in this regulation is to be taken to limit the meaning of any of the prohibitions contained in regulations 23 to 25.

I27I13027 Circumventing etc. prohibitions

1 A person must not intentionally participate in activities knowing that the object or effect of them is, whether directly or indirectly—
a to circumvent any of the prohibitions in this Part, or
b to enable or facilitate the contravention of any such prohibition.
2 A person who contravenes a prohibition in paragraph (1) commits an offence.

I28I13128 Defences

1 Paragraph (2) applies where a person relies on a defence in this Part.
2 If evidence is adduced which is sufficient to raise an issue with respect to the defence, the court must assume that the defence is satisfied unless the prosecution proves beyond reasonable doubt that it is not.

PART 6 Exceptions and licences

I29I13229 Finance: exceptions from prohibitions

1 The prohibition in regulation 11 (asset-freeze in relation to designated persons) is not contravened by an independent person (“P”) transferring to another person a legal or equitable interest in funds or economic resources where, immediately before the transfer, the interest—
a is held by P, and
b is not held jointly with the designated person.
2 In paragraph (1) “independent person” means a person who—
a is not the designated person, and
b is not owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
3 The prohibitions in regulations 11 to 13 (asset-freeze in relation to, and making funds available to or for the benefit of, designated persons) are not contravened by a relevant institution crediting a frozen account with interest or other earnings due on the account.
4 The prohibitions in regulations 12 and 13 (making funds available to, or for the benefit of, designated persons) are not contravened by a relevant institution crediting a frozen account where it receives funds transferred to that institution for crediting to that account.
5 The prohibitions in regulations 12 and 13 are not contravened by the transfer of funds to a relevant institution for crediting to an account held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by a designated person, where those funds are transferred in discharge (or partial discharge) of an obligation which arose before the date on which the person became a designated person.
6 The prohibitions in regulations 11 to 13 are not contravened in relation to a designated person (“P”) by a transfer of funds from account A to account B, where—
a account A is with a relevant institution which carries on an excluded activity within the meaning of section 142D of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 M9,
b account B is with a ring-fenced body within the meaning of section 142A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 M10, and
c accounts A and B are held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by P.
7 The prohibition in regulation 13 is not contravened by the making of a payment which—
a is a benefit under or by virtue of an enactment relating to social security (irrespective of the name or nature of the benefit), and
b is made to a person who is not a designated person,
whether or not the payment is made in respect of a designated person.
8 In this regulation—
  • “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (finance);
  • “frozen account” means an account with a relevant institution which is held or controlled (directly or indirectly) by a designated person;
  • “relevant institution” means a person that has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 M11 (permission to carry on regulated activity).
9 The definition of “relevant institution” in paragraph (7) is to be read with section 22 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 M12, any relevant order under that section M13 and Schedule 2 to that Act M14.
10 For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(b), (5) and (6) and the definition of “frozen account” in paragraph (8), references to a designated person are to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
11 When determining for the purposes of paragraph (5) when a person (“C”) who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person (“D”) became a designated person, C is to be treated as having become a designated person at the same time as D.

29ZA Finance: exception from prohibitions for required payments

1 This regulation applies to required payments within the meaning of paragraph (2).
2 A required payment is a payment which—
a a designated person is required to make under or by virtue of any enactment to—
i the registrar of companies,
ii the Commissioners,
iii the Welsh Revenue Authority,
iv Revenue Scotland,
v the Financial Conduct Authority,
vi the Secretary of State,
vii the Welsh Ministers,
viii the Department of Finance in Northern Ireland, or
ix a local authority, and
b is not an excluded payment.
3 The prohibitions in regulations 11 (asset-freeze in relation to designated persons) and 13 (making funds or financial services available for the benefit of designated persons) are not contravened by a person making a required payment.
4 Where a required payment is made by a person other than a designated person, the prohibition in regulation 11 is not contravened by the designated person making a reimbursement payment to that person.
5 The reference in paragraph (3) to a person making a required payment includes a designated person, but only where they are making a required payment on their own behalf.
6 The following payments are to be treated as payments which a designated person is required to make under or by virtue of an enactment for the purposes of this regulation, where made by a designated person on their own behalf or by a person, other than a designated person, on behalf of a designated person—
a a payment to the Financial Conduct Authority of a levy imposed by the scheme manager of the Financial Services Compensation Scheme by virtue of section 213 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the compensation scheme);
b a payment to the Financial Conduct Authority which is collected by that Authority on behalf of the Financial Reporting Council Limited.
7 For the purposes of this regulation, references to a designated person are to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
8 In this regulation—
  • “BID levy” means a levy that is imposed on those persons who are, in respect of particular business improvement district proposals, entitled to vote in accordance with section 39(3) of the Planning etc. (Scotland) Act 2006;
  • “business improvement district” has the meaning given in section 33 of the Planning etc. (Scotland) Act 2006;
  • “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
  • “enactment” has the meaning given in section 54(6) of the Act;
  • “excluded payment” means, in relation to—
    1. the registrar of companies, a payment of fees for—
      1. the incorporation of a firm;
      2. the restoration of a firm to a register which is administered by the registrar;
    2. the Financial Conduct Authority, a payment of fees for—
      1. an application for permission from, authorisation by, registration with or recognition from the Financial Conduct Authority which relates to the carrying on of any activity falling within any function of the Financial Conduct Authority;
      2. an application for a variation of such permission, authorisation, registration or recognition;
      3. an application for listing or for eligibility for listing;
      4. an application for review or approval of a document relating to listing;
      5. an application for approval as a sponsor or primary information provider;
      6. an application for review or approval of—
        1. a document under rules made by the Financial Conduct Authority by virtue of Part 3 of the Public Offers and Admissions to Trading Regulations 2024;
        2. listing particulars under section 79 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 or supplementary listing particulars under section 81 of that Act;
    3. the Secretary of State or the Welsh Ministers, a payment that a designated person is required to make under or by virtue of an enactment other than a payment under or by virtue of Part 3 of the Local Government Finance Act 1988;
    4. the Department of Finance in Northern Ireland, a payment that a designated person is required to make under or by virtue of an enactment other than a payment under or by virtue of Part 2 of the Rates (Northern Ireland) Order 1977;
    5. a local authority, a payment that a designated person is required to make under or by virtue of an enactment other than a payment under or by virtue of—
      1. Part 1 of the Local Government (Scotland) Act 1975;
      2. Part 3 of the Local Government Finance Act 1988;
      3. Parts 1 and 2 of the Local Government Finance Act 1992;
      4. Part 4 of the Local Government Act 2003;
      5. Part 9 of the Planning etc. (Scotland) Act 2006;
      6. the Business Rate Supplements Act 2009;
      7. the Business Improvement Districts Act (Northern Ireland) 2013;
  • “firm” has the meaning given in section 1173(1) of the Companies Act 2006;
  • “listing” means being included in the official list maintained by the Financial Conduct Authority in accordance with Part 6 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000;
  • “local authority” means—
    1. in relation to England—
      1. a district council;
      2. a county council for any area for which there is no district council;
      3. a London borough council;
      4. the Common Council of the City of London in its capacity as a local authority;
      5. the Council of the Isles of Scilly;
    2. in relation to Wales, a county council or a county borough council;
    3. in relation to Scotland, a council constituted under section 2 of the Local Government etc. (Scotland) Act 1994 or a person appointed by such a council for the purposes of the administration, collection and recovery of a BID levy;
    4. in relation to Northern Ireland, a district council;
  • “primary information provider” has the meaning given in section 89P(2) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000;
  • F56...
  • F56...
  • “registrar of companies” has the meaning given in section 1060 of the Companies Act 2006 (the registrar);
  • “reimbursement payment” means a repayment from the designated person to the person who made a required payment which is of the same amount as that required payment;
  • “scheme manager” has the meaning given in section 212 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000;
  • “sponsor” has the meaning given in section 88(2) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

29A Exception for authorised conduct in a relevant country

1 Where a person's conduct in a relevant country would, in the absence of this regulation, contravene a prohibition in any of regulations 11 to 15 (asset-freeze etc.) (“the relevant prohibition”), the relevant prohibition is not contravened if the conduct is authorised by a licence or other authorisation which is issued—
a under the law of the relevant country, and
b for the purpose of disapplying a prohibition in that jurisdiction which corresponds to the relevant prohibition.
2 In this regulation—
“relevant country” means—
  1. any of the Channel Islands,
  2. the Isle of Man, or
  3. any British overseas territory.
3 Nothing in this regulation affects the application of a prohibition in a case where it would be incompatible with a UN obligation for the prohibition not to apply.

I30I13330 Exception for acts done for purposes of national security or prevention of serious crime

1 Where an act would, in the absence of this paragraph, be prohibited by the prohibition in regulation 9(2) (confidentiality) any prohibition in Part 3 (finance) or 5 (trade), that prohibition does not apply to the act if the act is one which a responsible officer has determined would be in the interests of—
a national security, or
b the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
2 Where, in the absence of this paragraph, a thing would be required to be done under or by virtue of a provision of Part 7 (information and records) or Part 9 (maritime enforcement), that requirement does not apply if a responsible officer has determined that not doing the thing in question would be in the interests of—
a national security, or
b the prevention or detection of serious crime in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.
3 In this regulation “responsible officer” means a person in the service of the Crown or holding office under the Crown, acting in the course of that person's duty.
4 Nothing in this regulation affects the application of a prohibition or requirement in a case where it would be incompatible with a UN obligation for the prohibition or requirement not to apply.

I31I13431 Treasury licences

1 The prohibitions in regulations 11 to 15 (asset-freeze etc.) do not apply to anything done under the authority of a licence issued by the Treasury under this paragraph.
F312 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
F313 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
F314 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
F315 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

31A Director disqualification licences

The Secretary of State may issue a licence in relation to any person who is designated under regulation 5 for the purposes of regulation 16A (director disqualification sanctions) providing that the prohibitions in—
a section 11A(1) of the Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986, and
b Article 15A(1) of the Company Directors Disqualification (Northern Ireland) Order 2002,
do not apply to anything done under the authority of that licence.

31B Licences: general provisions

1 This regulation applies in relation to Treasury licences and director disqualification licences.
2 A licence must specify the acts authorised by it.
3 A licence may be general or may authorise acts by a particular person or persons of a particular description.
4 A licence may—
a contain conditions;
b be of indefinite duration or a defined duration.
5 A person who issues a licence may vary, revoke or suspend it at any time.
6 A person who , on the application of a person (“P”), issues a licence which authorises acts by a particular person , or varies, revokes or suspends that licence, must give written notice to P of the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.
7 A person who issues, varies, revokes or suspends a general licence or a licence which authorises acts by persons of a particular description must take such steps as that person considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the licence.

I32I13532 Finance: licensing offences

1 A person (“P”) commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly—
a provides information that is false in a material respect, or
b provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a Treasury licence (whether for P or anyone else).
2 A person who purports to act under the authority of a Treasury licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.

32A Director disqualification: licensing offences

1 A person (“P”) commits an offence if P knowingly or recklessly—
a provides information that is false in a material respect, or
b provides or produces a document that is not what it purports to be,
for the purpose of obtaining a director disqualification licence (whether for P or anyone else).
2 A person who purports to act under the authority of a director disqualification licence but who fails to comply with any condition of the licence commits an offence.
3 A licence in respect of which an offence under paragraph (1) has been committed is to be treated as void from the time at which it was issued.

I33I10033 Section 8B(1) to (3) of Immigration Act 1971: directions

1 The Secretary of State may direct that, in relation to any person within regulation 17 whose name is specified, or who is of a specified description, section 8B(1) and (2) of the Immigration Act 1971, or section 8B(3) of that Act, have effect subject to specified exceptions.
2 A direction may contain conditions.
3 A direction must be of a defined duration (and that duration may be expressed in any way, including, for example, being expressed in a way such that the direction ceases to have effect on, or within a specified period after, the occurrence of a specified event).
4 The Secretary of State may vary, revoke or suspend a direction under this regulation at any time.
5 On the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of a direction, the Secretary of State may take such steps as the Secretary of State considers appropriate to publicise the issue, variation, revocation or suspension of the direction.
6 In this regulation “specified” means specified in a direction.

PART 7 Information and records

I34I13634 Finance: reporting obligations

1 A relevant firm must inform the Treasury as soon as practicable if—
a it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person—
i is a designated person, or
ii has breached a prohibition or failed to comply with an obligation under any provision of Part 3 (finance) or regulation 32 (finance: licensing offences), and
b the information or other matter on which the knowledge or cause for suspicion is based came to it in the course of carrying on its business.
2 Where a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1), it must state—
a the information or other matter on which the knowledge or suspicion is based, and
b any information it holds about the person by which the person can be identified.
3 Paragraph (4) applies if—
a a relevant firm informs the Treasury under paragraph (1) that it knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that a person is a designated person, and
b that person is a customer of the relevant firm.
4 The relevant firm must also state the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources held by it for the customer at the time when it first had the knowledge or suspicion.
4A Where a person (“P”) knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect, that P holds funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by a designated person, P must by no later than 30th November in each calendar year provide a report to the Treasury as to the nature and amount or quantity of those funds or economic resources held by P as of 30th September in that calendar year.
4B Where a report has been provided further to paragraph (4A) but as of 30th September in the following calendar year P no longer holds funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by the designated person, P must by no later than 30th November in that calendar year report this to the Treasury.
4C For the purposes of paragraphs (4A) and (4B), funds or economic resources are to be treated as owned, held or controlled by a designated person if they are owned, held or controlled by a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
5 A relevant institution must inform the Treasury without delay if that institution—
a credits a frozen account in accordance with regulation 29(4) (finance: exceptions from prohibitions), or
b transfers funds from a frozen account in accordance with regulation 29(6).
6 A person who fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (1), (2) or (4) commits an offence.
6A A person commits an offence if that person, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a requirement in paragraph (4A) or (4B).
7 In this regulation—
  • “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (finance);
  • “frozen account” has the same meaning as it has in regulation 29;
  • “relevant firm” is to be read in accordance with regulation 35;
  • “relevant institution” has the same meaning as it has in regulation 29.

34A Finance: reporting obligations for required payments

1 A designated person must inform the Treasury without delay if they make a required payment.
2 A person who makes a required payment on behalf of a designated person must inform the Treasury without delay that they have made the required payment.
3 A person must inform the Treasury without delay if they receive a reimbursement payment.
4 For the purposes of this regulation, references to a designated person are to be read as including a person who is owned or controlled directly or indirectly (within the meaning of regulation 7) by the designated person.
5 In this regulation—
  • “designated person” has the meaning given in regulation 29ZA(8) (finance: exception from prohibitions for required payments);
  • “reimbursement payment” has the meaning given in regulation 29ZA(8);
  • “required payment” has the meaning given in regulation 29ZA(2).

I35I13735 “Relevant firm”

1 The following are relevant firms for the purposes of regulation 34—
a a person that has permission under Part 4A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (permission to carry on regulated activity);
b an undertaking that by way of business—
i operates a currency exchange office,
ii transmits money (or any representation of monetary value) by any means, or
iii cashes cheques that are made payable to customers;
c a firm or sole practitioner that is—
i a statutory auditor within the meaning of Part 42 of the Companies Act 2006 (statutory auditors) M15, or
ii a local auditor within the meaning of section 4(1) of the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014 (general requirements for audit) M16;
d a firm or sole practitioner that provides to other persons, by way of business—
i accountancy services,
ii legal or notarial services,
iii advice about tax affairs, or
iv trust or company services within the meaning of paragraph (2);
e a firm or sole practitioner that carries out, or whose employees carry out, estate agency work;
f the holder of a casino operating licence within the meaning given by section 65(2)(a) of the Gambling Act 2005 (nature of a licence) M17;
g a person engaged in the business of making, supplying, selling (including selling by auction) or exchanging—
i articles made from gold, silver, platinum or palladium, or
ii precious stones or pearls;
h a cryptoasset exchange provider;
i a custodian wallet provider;
j a high value dealer;
k an art market participant;
l an insolvency practitioner;
m a firm or sole practitioner (“P”) that carries out, or whose employees carry out, letting agency work.
2 In paragraph (1) “trust or company services” means any of the following services—
a forming companies or other legal persons;
b acting, or arranging for another person to act—
i as a director or secretary of a company,
ii as a partner of a partnership, or
iii in a similar capacity in relation to other legal persons;
c providing a registered office, business address, correspondence or administrative address or other related services for a company, partnership or any other legal person or arrangement;
d acting, or arranging for another person to act, as—
i a trustee of an express trust or similar legal arrangement, or
ii a nominee shareholder for a person.
3 In paragraph (1)—
  • “estate agency work” is to be read in accordance with section 1 of the Estate Agents Act 1979 M18, but as if references in that section to disposing of or acquiring an interest in land included (despite anything in section 2 of that Act) references to disposing of or acquiring an estate or interest in land outside the United Kingdom where that estate or interest is capable of being owned or held as a separate interest;
  • “firm” means any entity that, whether or not a legal person, is not an individual, and includes a body corporate and a partnership or other unincorporated body.
3A In paragraph (1), a “cryptoasset exchange provider” means a firm or sole practitioner that by way of business provides one or more of the following services, including where the firm or sole practitioner does so as creator or issuer of any of the cryptoassets involved—
a exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, cryptoassets for money or money for cryptoassets,
b exchanging, or arranging or making arrangements with a view to the exchange of, one cryptoasset for another, or
c operating a machine which utilises automated processes to exchange cryptoassets for money or money for cryptoassets.
3B In paragraph (1), a “custodian wallet provider” means a firm or sole practitioner that by way of business provides services to safeguard, or to safeguard and administer—
a cryptoassets on behalf of its customers, or
b private cryptographic keys on behalf of its customers in order to hold, store and transfer cryptoassets.
3C For the purposes of this regulation—
a “cryptoasset” means a cryptographically secured digital representation of value or contractual rights that uses a form of distributed ledger technology and can be transferred, stored or traded electronically;
b “money” means—
i money in sterling,
ii money in any other currency, or
iii money in any other medium of exchange,
but does not include a cryptoasset; and
c in sub-paragraphs (a) to (c) of paragraph (3A), “cryptoasset” includes a right to, or interest in, the cryptoasset.
3D In paragraph (1), a “high value dealer” means a firm or sole trader that by way of business trades in goods (including an auctioneer dealing in goods), when the firm or sole trader makes or receives, in respect of any transaction, a payment or payments in cash of at least 10,000 euros in total, whether the transaction is executed in a single operation or in several operations which appear to be linked.
3E In paragraph (1), an “art market participant” means, subject to paragraph (3F), a firm or sole practitioner that is registered or required to register with the Commissioners as an art market participant under regulation 56(5) and (6) of the Money Laundering, Terrorist Financing and Transfer of Funds (Information on the Payer) Regulations 2017.
3F A firm or sole practitioner is not an art market participant for the purposes of paragraph (3E) in relation to the sale or storage of a work of art which is created by, or is attributable to, a member of the firm or the sole practitioner.
3G For the purposes of this regulation, “work of art” means anything which, in accordance with section 21(6) to (6B) of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 (value of imported goods), is a work of art for the purposes of section 21(5)(a) of that Act.
3H In paragraph (1), an “insolvency practitioner” means a firm or individual who acts as an insolvency practitioner within the meaning of section 388 of the Insolvency Act 1986 or Article 3 of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989.
3I In paragraph (1), “letting agency work” means work—
a consisting of things done in response to instructions received from—
i a person (a “prospective landlord”) seeking to find another person to whom to let land for a term of a month or more, or
ii a person (a “prospective tenant”) seeking to find land to rent for a term of a month or more, and
b done—
i in relation to a prospective landlord, from the point that the prospective landlord instructs P, or
ii otherwise in the course of concluding an agreement for the letting of land for a term of a month or more.
3J For the purposes of paragraph (3I)—
  • “land” includes part of a building and part of any other structure;
  • “letting agency work” does not include the things listed in paragraph (3K) when done by, or by employees of, a firm or sole practitioner if neither the firm or sole practitioner, nor any of their employees, does anything else within paragraph (3I).
3K Those things are—
a publishing advertisements or disseminating information;
b providing a means by which a prospective landlord or a prospective tenant can, in response to an advertisement or dissemination of information, make direct contact with a prospective tenant or a prospective landlord;
c providing a means by which a prospective landlord and a prospective tenant can communicate directly with each other;
d the provision of legal or notarial services by a barrister, advocate, solicitor or other legal representative communications with whom may be the subject of a claim to professional privilege or, in Scotland, protected from disclosure in legal proceedings on grounds of confidentiality of communications.
4 Paragraph (1)(a) and (b) is to be read with section 22 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, any relevant order under that section and Schedule 2 to that Act
5 For the purposes of regulation 34(1), information or another matter comes to a relevant firm “in the course of carrying on its business” if the information or other matter comes to the firm—
a in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(a), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the permission mentioned in that provision is required;
b in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(i), in the course of carrying out statutory audit work within the meaning of section 1210 of the Companies Act 2006 (meaning of “statutory auditor”) M19;
c in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(c)(ii), in the course of carrying out an audit required by the Local Audit and Accountability Act 2014;
d in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(f), in the course of carrying on an activity in respect of which the licence mentioned in that provision is required;
da in the case of a relevant firm within paragraph (1)(k)—
i in the course of trading, or acting as an intermediary in the sale or purchase of, works of art when the value of the transaction, or a series of linked transactions, amounts to 10,000 euros or more, or
ii in the course of storing works of art where the value of the works of art so stored for a person amounts to 10,000 euros or more;
e in the case of a relevant firm within any other provision of paragraph (1), in the course of carrying on an activity mentioned in that provision.

I36I13836 Finance: powers to request information

1 The Treasury may request a designated person to provide information about—
a funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on the behalf of the designated person, or
b any disposal of such funds or economic resources.
2 The Treasury may request a designated person to provide such information as the Treasury may reasonably require about expenditure—
a by the designated person, or
b for the benefit of the designated person.
3 For the purposes of paragraph (2), expenditure for the benefit of a designated person includes expenditure on the discharge (or partial discharge) of a financial obligation for which the designated person is wholly or partly responsible.
4 The power in paragraph (1) or (2) is exercisable only where the Treasury believe that it is necessary for the purpose of monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of any provision of Part 3 (Finance).
5 The Treasury may request a person acting under a Treasury licence to provide information about—
a funds or economic resources dealt with under the licence, or
b funds, economic resources or financial services made available under the licence.
6 The Treasury may request a person to provide information within paragraph (7) if the Treasury believe that the person may be able to provide the information.
7 Information within this paragraph is such information as the Treasury may reasonably require for the purpose of—
a establishing for the purposes of any provision of Part 3—
i the nature and amount or quantity of any funds or economic resources owned, held or controlled by or on the behalf of a designated person,
ii the nature and amount or quantity of any funds, economic resources or financial services made available directly or indirectly to, or for the benefit of, a designated person, or
iii the nature of any financial transactions entered into by a designated person;
b monitoring compliance with or detecting evasion of—
i any provision of Part 3,
ii regulation 34 (finance: reporting obligations), or
iii any condition of a Treasury licence;
c detecting or obtaining evidence of the commission of an offence under Part 3 or regulation 32 (finance: licensing offences) or 34 (finance: reporting obligations).
8 The Treasury may specify the way in which, and the period within which, information is to be provided.
9 If no such period is specified, the information which has been requested must be provided within a reasonable time.
10 A request may include a continuing obligation to keep the Treasury informed as circumstances change, or on such regular basis as the Treasury may specify.
11 Information requested under this regulation may relate to any period of time during which a person is, or was, a designated person.
12 Information requested by virtue of paragraph (1)(b), (2) or (7)(a)(iii) may relate to any period before a person became a designated person (as well as, or instead of, any subsequent period).
13 Expressions used in this regulation have the same meaning as they have in Part 3.

I37I13937 Finance: production of documents

1 A request under regulation 36 may include a request to produce specified documents or documents of a specified description.
2 Where the Treasury request that documents be produced, the Treasury may—
a take copies of or extracts from any document so produced,
b request any person producing a document to give an explanation of it, and
c where that person is a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated body other than a partnership, request any person who is—
i in the case of a partnership, a present or past partner or employee of the partnership, or
ii in any other case, a present or past officer or employee of the body concerned,
to give such an explanation.
3 Where the Treasury request a designated person or a person acting under a Treasury licence to produce documents, that person must—
a take reasonable steps to obtain the documents (if they are not already in the person's possession or control);
b keep the documents under the person's possession or control (except for the purpose of providing them to the Treasury or as the Treasury may otherwise permit).
4 In this regulation “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (finance).

I38I14038 Finance: information offences

1 A person commits an offence, if that person—
a without reasonable excuse, refuses or fails within the time and in the manner specified (or, if no time has been specified, within a reasonable time) to comply with any request under regulation 36 (finance: powers to request information);
b knowingly or recklessly gives any information, or produces any document, which is false in a material particular in response to such a request;
c with intent to evade any provision of regulation 36 (finance: powers to request information) or 37 (finance: production of documents), destroys, mutilates, defaces, conceals or removes any document;
d otherwise intentionally obstructs the Treasury in the exercise of their powers under regulation 36 or 37.
2 Where a person is convicted of an offence under this regulation, the court may make an order requiring that person, within such period as may be specified in the order, to comply with the request.

I39I10139 Trade: application of information powers in CEMA

1 Section 77A of CEMA M20 applies in relation to a person carrying on a relevant activity as it applies in relation to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods but as if—
a in subsection (1), the reference to a person concerned in the importation or exportation of goods for which for that purpose an entry is required by regulation 5 of the Customs Controls on Importation of Goods Regulations 1991 M21 or an entry or specification is required by or under CEMA were to a person carrying on a relevant activity;
b any other reference to importation or exportation were to a relevant activity;
c any other reference to goods were to the goods, technology, services or funds to which the relevant activity relates.
2 For the purposes of paragraph (1), a “relevant activity” means an activity which constitutes a contravention of—
a any prohibition in Part 5 (trade) except the prohibition in regulation 19(1)(export of military goods), or
b the prohibition in regulation 27 (circumventing etc. prohibitions).

I40I14140 Disclosure of information

1 The Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners may, in accordance with this regulation, disclose—
a any information obtained under or by virtue of Part 6 (exceptions and licences), this Part or Part 9 (maritime enforcement), or
b any information held in connection with—
i anything done under or by virtue of Part 2 (designation of persons), Part 3 (finance), Part 3A (Director disqualification sanctions), Part 5 (trade), or
ii any exception or licence under Part 6 or anything done in accordance with such an exception or under the authority of such a licence.
2 Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed for, or in connection with, any of the following purposes—
a the exercise of functions under these Regulations;
b any purpose stated in regulation 4;
c facilitating, monitoring or ensuring compliance with these Regulations;
d taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in the United Kingdom—
i for an offence under any provision of these Regulations,
ii for an offence under CEMA in connection with the prohibition mentioned in regulation 19(1) (export of military goods), or
iii in relation to a monetary penalty under section 146 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 (breach of financial sanctions legislation) M22;
e taking any action with a view to instituting, or otherwise for the purposes of, any proceedings in any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man, or any British overseas territory, for an offence—
i under a provision in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a provision of these Regulations, or
ii in connection with a prohibition in any such jurisdiction that is similar to a prohibition referred to in sub-paragraph (d)(ii);
f compliance with an international obligation M23;
g facilitating the exercise by an authority outside the United Kingdom or by an international organisation of functions which correspond to functions under these Regulations.
3 Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to the following persons—
a a police officer;
b any person holding or acting in any office under or in the service of—
i the Crown in right of the Government of the United Kingdom,
ii the Crown in right of the Scottish Government, the Northern Ireland Executive or the Welsh Government,
iii the States of Jersey, Guernsey or Alderney or the Chief Pleas of Sark,
iv the Government of the Isle of Man, or
v the Government of any British overseas territory;
c any law officer of the Crown for Jersey, Guernsey or the Isle of Man;
d the Scottish Legal Aid Board;
e the Financial Conduct Authority, the Prudential Regulation Authority, the Bank of England, the Jersey Financial Services Commission, the Guernsey Financial Services Commission or the Isle of Man Financial Services Authority;
f any other regulatory body (whether or not in the United Kingdom);
g any organ of the United Nations;
h the Council of the European Union, the European Commission or the European External Action Service;
i the Government of any country;
j any other person where the Secretary of State, the Treasury or the Commissioners (as the case may be) considers that it is appropriate to disclose the information.
4 Information referred to in paragraph (1) may be disclosed to any person with the consent of a person who, in their own right, is entitled to the information.
5 In paragraph (4) “in their own right” means not merely in the capacity as a servant or agent of another person.
6 In paragraph (1)(b)—
a references to information include information obtained at a time when any provision of these Regulations is not in force, and
b references to a licence under Part 6 include—
i a licence which is treated as if it were a licence which had been issued under that Part, and
ii a licence which is deemed to have been issued under that Part.

40A Finance: disclosure to the Treasury

1 A relevant public authority may disclose information to the Treasury if the disclosure is made for the purpose of enabling or assisting the Treasury to discharge any of its functions in connection with any sanctions regulations contained in these Regulations.
2 In this regulation—
  • “relevant public authority” means—
    1. any person holding or acting in any office under or in the service of—
      1. the Crown in right of the Government of the United Kingdom,
      2. the Crown in right of the Scottish Government, the Northern Ireland Executive or the Welsh Government,
    2. any local authority,
    3. any police officer,
    4. the Financial Conduct Authority, the Prudential Regulation Authority, the Bank of England or any other regulatory body in the United Kingdom, or
    5. any other person exercising functions of a public nature;
  • “local authority” means—
    1. in relation to England—
      1. a county council,
      2. a district council,
      3. a London Borough council,
      4. the Common Council of the City of London in its capacity as a local authority,
      5. the Council of the Isles of Scilly, or
      6. an eligible parish council within the meaning of section 1(2) of the Local Government Act 2000,
    2. in relation to Wales, a county council, a county borough council or a community council,
    3. in relation to Scotland, a council constituted under section 2 of the Local Government etc. (Scotland) Act 1994, or
    4. in relation to Northern Ireland, a district council.

I41I14241 Part 7: supplementary

1 A disclosure of information under regulation 40 or 40A does not breach any restriction on such disclosure imposed by statute or otherwise.
2 But nothing in those regulations authorises a disclosure that—
a contravenes the data protection legislation, or
b is prohibited by an of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 M24.
3 Nothing in this Part is to be read as requiring a person who has acted or is acting as counsel or solicitor for any person to disclose any privileged information in their possession in that capacity.
4 Regulations 40 and 40A do not limit the circumstances in which information may be disclosed apart from those regulations.
5 Nothing in this Part limits any conditions which may be contained in a Treasury licence.
6 In this regulation—
  • “the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act) M25;
  • “privileged information” means information with respect to which a claim to legal professional privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal proceedings.

PART 8 Enforcement

I42I14342 Penalties for offences

1 A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 3 (finance) or regulation 32 (finance: licensing offences), is liable—
a on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
b on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
c on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
d on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or a fine (or both).
2 A person who commits an offence under any provision of Part 5 (trade) is liable—
a on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
b on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
c on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
d on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or a fine (or both).
3 A person who commits an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality) or 32A (director disqualification: licensing offences) is liable—
a on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding the general limit in a magistrates’ court or a fine (or both);
b on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
c on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both);
d on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine (or both).
4 A person who commits an offence under regulation 34(6) or 38 (information offences in connection with Part 3) is liable—
a on summary conviction in England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine (or both);
b on summary conviction in Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both);
c on summary conviction in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
5 In relation to an offence committed before 2nd May 2022 the reference in each of paragraphs (1)(a), 2(a) and 3(a) to the general limit in a magistrates’ court is to be read as a reference to 6 months.

I43I10243 Liability of officers of bodies corporate etc.

1 Where an offence under these Regulations , committed by a body corporate—
a is committed with the consent or connivance of any director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, or any person who was purporting to act in any such capacity, or
b is attributable to any neglect on the part of any such person,
that person as well as the body corporate is guilty of the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
2 In paragraph (1) “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
3 Paragraph (1) also applies in relation to a body that is not a body corporate, with the substitution for the reference to a director of the body of a reference—
a in the case of a partnership, to a partner;
b in the case of an unincorporated body other than a partnership—
i where the body's affairs are managed by its members, to a member of the body;
ii in any other case, to a member of the governing body.
4 Section 171(4) of CEMA (which is a provision similar to this regulation) does not apply to any offence under these Regulations to which that provision would, in the absence of this paragraph, apply.

I44I14444 Jurisdiction to try offences

1 Where an offence under regulation 9(6) (confidentiality), Part 3 (finance), regulation 32 (finance: licensing offences) or regulation 34(6) or 38(1) (information offences in connection with Part 3) is committed in the United Kingdom—
a proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
b the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
2 Where an offence under these Regulations is committed outside the United Kingdom—
a proceedings for the offence may be taken at any place in the United Kingdom, and
b the offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
3 In the application of paragraph (2) to Scotland, any such proceedings against a person may be taken—
a in any sheriff court district in which the person is apprehended or is in custody, or
b in such sheriff court district as the Lord Advocate may determine.
4 In paragraph (3) “sheriff court district” is to be read in accordance with the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (see section 307(1) of that Act) M26.

I45I10545 Procedure for offences by unincorporated bodies

1 Paragraphs (2) and (3) apply if it is alleged that an offence under these Regulations has been committed by an unincorporated body (as opposed to by a member of the body).
2 Proceedings in England and Wales or Northern Ireland for such an offence must be brought against the body in its own name.
3 For the purposes of proceedings, for such an offence brought against an unincorporated body—
a rules of court relating to the service of documents have effect as if the body were a body corporate;
b the following provisions apply as they apply in relation to a body corporate—
i section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 M27 and Schedule 3 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 M28;
ii section 18 of the Criminal Justice Act (Northern Ireland) 1945 M29 and Article 166 of, and Schedule 4 to, the Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 M30.
4 A fine imposed on an unincorporated body on its conviction of an offence under these Regulations is to be paid out of the funds of the body.

I46I10646 Time limit for proceedings for summary offences

1 Proceedings for an offence under these Regulations which is triable only summarily may be brought within the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings comes to the prosecutor's knowledge.
2 But such proceedings may not be brought by virtue of paragraph (1) more than 3 years after the commission of the offence.
3 A certificate signed by the prosecutor as to the date on which the evidence in question came to the prosecutor's knowledge is conclusive evidence of the date on which it did so; and a certificate to that effect and purporting to be so signed is to be treated as being so signed unless the contrary is proved.
4 In relation to proceedings in Scotland—
a section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (date of commencement of summary proceedings) applies for the purposes of this regulation as it applies for the purposes of that section, and
b references in this regulation to the prosecutor are to be treated as references to the Lord Advocate.

I47I10347 Trade enforcement: application of CEMA

1 Where the Commissioners investigate or propose to investigate any matter with a view to determining—
a whether there are grounds for believing that a relevant offence has been committed, or
b whether a person should be prosecuted for such an offence,
the matter is to be treated as an assigned matter.
2 In paragraph (1) “assigned matter” has the meaning given by section 1(1) of CEMA M31.
3 In this regulation a “relevant offence” means an offence under Part 5 (trade),
3A The Commissioners may not investigate the suspected commission of a relevant offence listed in paragraphs (3B) or (3C) unless the suspected offence has been the subject of—
a a referral to the Commissioners by the Secretary of State, or
b a decision by the Commissioners to treat the suspected offence as if it had been referred to them under sub-paragraph (a).
3B Paragraph (3A) applies to the suspected commission of an offence under regulation 26(3) (enabling or facilitating the conduct of armed hostilities).
3C Paragraph (3A) also applies to the suspected commission of a relevant offence under regulation 27(2) (circumventing etc. prohibitions), insofar as the prohibited activity to which the suspected offence relates is the circumvention of, or enabling or facilitation of a contravention of, a prohibition in relation to an offence specified in paragraph (3B).
4 Section 138 of CEMA M32 (arrest of persons) applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence as it applies to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, an offence for which the person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts M33, but as if—
a any reference to an offence under, or for which a person is liable to be arrested under, the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
b in subsection (2), the reference to any person so liable were to a person who has committed, or whom there are reasonable grounds to suspect of having committed, a relevant offence.
5 The provisions of CEMA mentioned in paragraph (6) apply in relation to proceedings for a relevant offence as they apply in relation to proceedings for an offence under the customs and excise Acts, but as if—
a any reference to the customs and excise Acts were to any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3);
b in section 145(6), the reference to an offence for which a person is liable to be arrested under the customs and excise Acts were to a relevant offence;
c in section 151, the reference to any penalty imposed under the customs and excise Acts were to any penalty imposed under these Regulations in relation to a relevant offence;
d in section 154(2)—
i the reference to proceedings relating to customs or excise were to proceedings under any of the provisions mentioned in paragraph (3), and
ii the reference to the place from which any goods have been brought included a reference to the place to which goods have been exported, supplied or delivered or the place to or from which technology has been transferred.
6 The provisions of CEMA are sections 145, 146, 147, 148(1), 150, 151, 152, 154 and 155 M34 (legal proceedings).

I48I10448 Trade offences in CEMA: modification of penalty

1 Paragraph (2) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 68(2) of CEMA in connection with the prohibition mentioned in regulation 19(1) (export of military goods).
2 Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA M35 is to be read as a reference to 10 years.
3 Paragraph (4) applies where a person is guilty of an offence under section 170(2) of CEMA in connection with the prohibition mentioned in regulation 19(1).
4 Where this paragraph applies, the reference to 7 years in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA M36 is to be read as a reference to 10 years.

I49I10749 Application of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005

Chapter 1 of Part 2 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (investigatory powers) M37 applies to any offence under Part 3 (finance) and regulation 32 (finance: licensing offences).

I50I10850 Monetary penalties

The following provisions are to be regarded as not being financial sanctions legislation for the purposes of Part 8 of the Policing and Crime Act 2017 M38—
a regulation 21(1) (making military goods and military technology available);
b regulation 22(1) (transfer of military technology);
c regulation 24(1) and (2) (financial services and funds relating to military goods and military technology);
d regulation 25(1)(f)(i) and (g) (brokering services relating to financial services and funds relating to military goods and military technology)
e regulation 26 (enabling or facilitating conduct of armed hostilites).

PART 9 Maritime enforcement

I51I14551 Exercise of maritime enforcement powers

1 A maritime enforcement officer may, for a purpose mentioned in paragraph (2) or (3), exercise any of the maritime enforcement powers in relation to—
a a British ship in foreign waters or international waters,
b a ship without nationality in international waters, or
c a foreign ship in international waters,
and a ship within sub-paragraph (a), (b) or (c) is referred to in this Part as “a relevant ship”.
2 The maritime enforcement powers may be exercised for the purpose of enforcing any of the following—
a the prohibition in regulation 19(1) (export of military goods);
b the prohibition in regulation 20(1) (supply and delivery of military goods);
c a prohibition in regulation 21(1) (making military goods and military technology available);
d a prohibition in regulation 22(1) (transfer of military technology);
3 The maritime enforcement powers may also be exercised in relation to a relevant ship for the purpose of—
a investigating the suspected carriage of relevant goods on the ship, or
b preventing the continued carriage on the ship of goods suspected to be relevant goods.
4 In this Part, “the maritime enforcement powers” are the powers conferred by regulations 53 and 54.
5 This regulation is subject to regulation 55 (restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers).

I52I14652 Maritime enforcement officers

1 The following persons are “maritime enforcement officers” for the purposes of this Part—
a a commissioned officer of any of Her Majesty's ships;
b a member of the Ministry of Defence Police (within the meaning of section 1 of the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987 M39);
c a constable—
i who is a member of a police force in England and Wales,
ii within the meaning of section 99 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 M40, or
iii who is a member of the Police Service of Northern Ireland or the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve;
d a special constable—
i appointed under section 27 of the Police Act 1996 M41,
ii appointed under section 9 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012, or
iii in Northern Ireland, appointed by virtue of provision incorporating section 79 of the Harbours, Docks, and Piers Clauses Act 1847 M42;
e a constable who is a member of the British Transport Police Force;
f a port constable, within the meaning of section 7 of the Marine Navigation Act 2013 M43, or a person appointed to act as a constable under provision made by virtue of section 16 of the Harbours Act 1964 M44;
g a designated customs official within the meaning of Part 1 of the Borders, Citizenship and Immigration Act 2009 (see section 14(6) of that Act) M45;
h a designated NCA officer who is authorised by the Director General of the National Crime Agency (whether generally or specifically) to exercise the powers of a maritime enforcement officer under this Part.
2 In this regulation, “a designated NCA officer” means a National Crime Agency officer who is either or both of the following—
a an officer designated under section 10 of the Crime and Courts Act 2013 as having the powers and privileges of a constable;
b an officer designated under that section as having the powers of a general customs official.

I53I14753 Power to stop, board, search etc.

1 This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a relevant ship is carrying prohibited goods or relevant goods.
2 The officer may—
a stop the ship;
b board the ship;
c for the purpose of exercising a power conferred by paragraph (3) or regulation 54, require the ship to be taken to, and remain in, a port or anchorage in the United Kingdom or any other country willing to receive it.
3 Where the officer boards a ship by virtue of this regulation, the officer may—
a stop any person found on the ship and search that person for—
i prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
ii any thing that might be used to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship;
b search the ship, or any thing found on the ship (including cargo) for prohibited goods or relevant goods.
4 The officer may—
a require a person found on a ship boarded by virtue of this regulation to provide information or produce documents;
b inspect and copy such information or documents.
5 The officer may exercise a power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(i) or (b) only to the extent reasonably required for the purpose of discovering prohibited goods or relevant goods.
6 The officer may exercise the power conferred by paragraph (3)(a)(ii) in relation to a person only where the officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the person might use a thing to cause physical injury or damage to property or to endanger the safety of any ship.
7 The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.

I54I14854 Seizure power

1 This regulation applies if a maritime enforcement officer is lawfully on a relevant ship (whether in exercise of the powers conferred by regulation 53 or otherwise).
2 The officer may seize any of the following which are found on the ship, in any thing found on the ship, or on any person found on the ship—
a goods which the officer has reasonable grounds to suspect are prohibited goods or relevant goods, or
b things within regulation 53(3)(a)(ii).
3 The officer may use reasonable force, if necessary, in the exercise of any power conferred by this regulation.

I55I14955 Restrictions on exercise of maritime enforcement powers

1 The authority of the Secretary of State is required before any maritime enforcement power is exercised in reliance on regulation 51 in relation to—
a a British ship in foreign waters, or
b a foreign ship in international waters.
2 In relation to a British ship in foreign waters other than the sea and other waters within the seaward limits of the territorial sea adjacent to any relevant British possession, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if the State in whose waters the power would be exercised consents to the exercise of the power.
3 In relation to a foreign ship in international waters, the Secretary of State may give authority under paragraph (1) only if—
a the home state has requested the assistance of the United Kingdom for a purpose mentioned in regulation 51(2) or (3),
b the home state has authorised the United Kingdom to act for such a purpose, or
c the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982 M46 or a UN Security Council Resolution otherwise permits the exercise of the power in relation to the ship.

I56I9956 Interpretation of Part 9

1 Subject to paragraph (2), any expression used in this Part and in section 19 or 20 of the Act has the same meaning in this Part as it has in section 19 or (as the case may be) section 20 of the Act.
2 For the purpose of interpreting any reference to “prohibited goods” or “relevant goods” in this Part, any reference in section 19 or 20 of the Act to a “relevant prohibition or requirement” is to be read as a reference to any prohibition specified in regulation 51(2)(a) to (d).

PART 10 Supplementary and final provision

I57I15057 Notices

1 This regulation applies in relation to a notice required by regulation 31 (treasury licences) or regulation 31A (director disqualification licences) to be given to a person.
2 The notice may be given to an individual—
a by delivering it to the individual,
b by sending it to the individual by post addressed to the individual at his or her usual or last-known place of residence or business, or
c by leaving it for the individual at that place.
3 The notice may be given to a person other than an individual—
a by sending it by post to the proper officer of the body at its principal office, or
b by addressing it to the proper officer of the body and leaving it at that office.
4 The notice may be given to the person by other means, including by electronic means, with the person's consent.
5 In this regulation, the reference in paragraph (3) to a “principal office”—
a in relation to a registered company, is to be read as a reference to the company's registered office;
b in relation to a body incorporated or constituted under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom, includes a reference to the body's principal office in the United Kingdom (if any).
6 In this regulation—
  • “proper officer”—
    1. in relation to a body other than a partnership, means the secretary or other executive officer charged with the conduct of the body's general affairs; and
    2. in relation to a partnership, means a partner or a person who has the control or management of the partnership business;
  • “registered company” means a company registered under the enactments relating to companies for the time being in force in the United Kingdom.

I58I10958 Trade: overlapping offences

A person is not to be taken to commit an offence under the Export Control Order 2008 if the person would, in the absence of this regulation, commit an offence under both—
a article 34 of that Order, and
b any provision of Part 5 (trade).

I59I11059 Revocation of the ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011

The ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 M47 are revoked.

I60I11160 Other revocations

1 Council Regulation (EC) No 2580/2001 of 27 December 2001 on specific restrictive measures directed against certain persons and entities with a view to combating terrorism is revoked.
2 Council Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/24 of 8 January 2019 implementing Article 2(3) of Regulation (EC) No 2580/2001 on specific restrictive measures directed against certain persons and entities with a view to combating terrorism, and repealing Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1071 is revoked.
3 Council Regulation (EU) 2016/1686 of 20 September 2016 imposing additional restrictive measures directed against ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaeda and natural and legal persons, entities or bodies associated with them is revoked.

60A Amendment of the Charities Act 2011

1 The Charities Act 2011 is amended as set out in paragraph (2).
2 In section 178(1), in Case J, for paragraph (b) substitute—
.

60B Amendment of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018

1 The Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 is amended as set out in paragraph (2).
2 In section 49(3), in the definition of “terrorist financing”, for paragraph (c) substitute—
.

I61I15161 Transitional provision: Treasury licences

1 Paragraphs (2) to (4) apply to a licence which—
a was granted, or deemed to be granted, by the Treasury under—
i section 17 of the Terrorist Asset-Freezing Act etc. 2010 M48, or
ii under regulation 9 M49 of the 2011 Regulations in respect of persons named in Annex 1 to the EU autonomous ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida) Regulation;
b was in effect immediately before the relevant date, and
c authorises conduct which would (on and after the relevant date, and in the absence of paragraphs (2) to (4)) be prohibited under Part 3 (finance),
and such a licence is referred to in this regulation as “an existing financial sanctions licence”.
2 An existing financial sanctions licence which authorises an act which would otherwise be prohibited has effect on and after the relevant date as if it had been issued by the Treasury under regulation 31(1) (treasury licences).
3 Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to the Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 or the 2011 Regulations is to be treated on or after the relevant date as a reference to these Regulations.
4 Any reference in an existing financial sanctions licence to a prohibition in—
a the Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010,
b the 2011 Regulations,
c the EU autonomous ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida) Regulation, or
d EU Regulation 2580/2001,
is to be treated on and after the relevant date as a reference to the corresponding prohibition in Part 3.
5 Paragraph (6) applies where—
a an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence—
i under the Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010, or
ii under the 2011 Regulations in respect of persons named in Annex 1 to the EU autonomous ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida) Regulation,
was made before the relevant date;
b the application is for the authorisation of conduct which would (on or after the relevant date) be prohibited under Part 3, and
c a decision to grant or refuse the application has not been made before that date.
6 The application is to be treated on or after the relevant date as an application for a licence, or for the variation of a licence (as the case may be), under regulation 31 (treasury licences).
7 In this regulation—
  • “EU Regulation 2580/2001” means Council Regulation (EC) No 2580/2001 of 27 December 2001 on specific restrictive measures directed against certain persons and entities with a view to combating terrorism, as it has effect in EU law;
  • “the 2011 Regulations” means the ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida (Asset-Freezing) Regulations 2011 M50;
  • “the relevant date” means—
    1. where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 3 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
    2. otherwise, the date on which Part 3 comes into force.

I62I15262 Transitional provision: prior obligations

1 Where—
a a person was—
i designated by the Treasury for the purposes of Part 1 of the Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 immediately before the relevant date,
ii named in Annex 1 of the EU autonomous ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida Regulation immediately before the relevant date, or
iii named on the list provided for in Article 2(3) of EU Regulation 2580/2001 M51 immediately before the relevant date; and
b the person is a designated person immediately before the relevant date,
any reference in a provision in regulation 29(5) (finance: exception from prohibitions) to the date on which a person became a designated person is to be read as a reference to the original listing date.
2 In this regulation—
  • “designated person” has the same meaning as it has in Part 3 (Finance);
  • “original listing date” means the earliest of—
    1. the date on which the person was designated by the Treasury for the purposes of Part 1 of the Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010;
    2. the date on which the person was designated by Treasury under any Order mentioned in section 1(2) of the Terrorist Asset-Freezing (Temporary Provisions) Act 2010 M52;
    3. the date on which the person was named in Annex 1 to the EU autonomous ISIL (Da'esh) and Al-Qaida Regulation; and
    4. the date on which the person was named on the list provided for in Article 2(3) of EU Regulation 2580/2001;
  • “EU Regulation 2580/2001” means Council Regulation (EC) No 2580/2001 of 27 December 2001 on specific restrictive measures directed against certain persons and entities with a view to combating terrorism, as it has effect in EU law;
  • “the relevant date” means—
    1. where regulations under section 56 of the Act provide that Part 3 comes into force at a specified time on a day, that time on that day;
    2. otherwise, the date on which Part 3 comes into force.

SCHEDULE 

Rules for interpretation of regulation 7(2)

Regulation 7(3)

I63I841 Application of Schedule

1 The rules set out in the following paragraphs of this Schedule apply for the purpose of interpreting regulation 7(2).
2 They also apply for the purpose of interpreting this Schedule.

I64I852 Joint interests

If two or more persons each hold a share or right jointly, each of them is treated as holding that share or right.

I65I863 Joint arrangements

1 If shares or rights held by a person and shares or rights held by another person are the subject of a joint arrangement between those persons, each of them is treated as holding the combined shares or rights of both of them.
2 A “joint arrangement” is an arrangement between the holders of shares or rights that they will exercise all or substantially all the rights conferred by their respective shares or rights jointly in a way that is pre-determined by the arrangement.
3 “Arrangement” has the meaning given by paragraph 12.

I66I874 Calculating shareholdings

1 In relation to a person who has a share capital, a reference to holding “more than 50% of the shares” in that person is to holding shares comprised in the issued share capital of that person of a nominal value exceeding (in aggregate) 50% of that share capital.
2 In relation to a person who does not have a share capital—
a a reference to holding shares in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person;
b a reference to holding “more than 50% of the shares” in that person is to holding a right or rights to share in more than 50% of the capital or, as the case may be, profits of that person.

I67I885 Voting rights

1 A reference to the voting rights in a person is to the rights conferred on shareholders in respect of their shares (or, in the case of a person not having a share capital, on members) to vote at general meetings of the person on all or substantially all matters.
2 In relation to a person that does not have general meetings at which matters are decided by the exercise of voting rights—
a a reference to holding voting rights in the person is to be read as a reference to holding rights in relation to the person that are equivalent to those of a person entitled to exercise voting rights in a company;
b a reference to holding “more than 50% of the voting rights” in the person is to be read as a reference to holding the right under the constitution of the person to block changes to the overall policy of the person or to the terms of its constitution.
I68I896In applying regulation 7(2) and this Schedule, the voting rights in a person are to be reduced by any rights held by the person itself.

I69I907 Rights to appoint or remove members of the board

A reference to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of a person is to the right to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of the voting rights at meetings of the board on all or substantially all matters.
I70I918A reference to a board of directors, in the case of a person who does not have such a board, is to be read as a reference to the equivalent management body of that person.

I71I929 Shares or rights held “indirectly”

1 A person holds a share “indirectly” if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person—
a holds the share in question, or
b is part of a chain of persons—
i each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
ii the last of whom holds the share.
2 A person holds a right “indirectly” if the person has a majority stake in another person and that other person—
a holds that right, or
b is part of a chain of persons—
i each of whom (other than the last) has a majority stake in the person immediately below it in the chain, and
ii the last of whom holds that right.
3 For these purposes, a person (“A”) has a “majority stake” in another person (“B”) if—
a A holds a majority of the voting rights in B,
b A is a member of B and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of B,
c A is a member of B and controls alone, pursuant to an agreement with other shareholders or members, a majority of the voting rights in B, or
d A has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, dominant influence or control over B.
4 In the application of this paragraph to the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors, a person (“A”) is to be treated as having the right to appoint a director if—
a any person's appointment as director follows necessarily from that person's appointment as director of A, or
b the directorship is held by A itself.

I72I9310 Shares held by nominees

A share held by a person as nominee for another is to be treated as held by the other (and not by the nominee).

I73I9411 Rights treated as held by person who controls their exercise

1 Where a person controls a right, the right is to be treated as held by that person (and not by the person who in fact holds the right, unless that person also controls it).
2 A person “controls” a right if, by virtue of any arrangement between that person and others, the right is exercisable only—
a by that person,
b in accordance with that person's directions or instructions, or
c with that person's consent or concurrence.
I74I9512“Arrangement” includes—
a any scheme, agreement or understanding, whether or not it is legally enforceable, and
b any convention, custom or practice of any kind.

I75I9613 Rights exercisable only in certain circumstances etc.

1 Rights that are exercisable only in certain circumstances are to be taken into account only—
a when the circumstances have arisen, and for so long as they continue to obtain, or
b when the circumstances are within the control of the person having the rights.
2 But rights that are exercisable by an administrator or by creditors while a person is subject to relevant insolvency proceedings are not to be taken into account while the person is subject to those proceedings.
3 “Relevant insolvency proceedings” means—
a administration within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986 M53,
b administration within the meaning of the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 M54, or
c proceedings under the insolvency law of another country during which a person's assets and affairs are subject to the control or supervision of a third party or creditor.
4 Rights that are normally exercisable but are temporarily incapable of exercise are to continue to be taken into account.

I76I9714 Rights attached to shares held by way of security

Rights attached to shares held by way of security provided by a person are to be treated for the purposes of this Schedule as held by that person—
a where apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in accordance with that person's instructions, and
b where the shares are held in connection with the granting of loans as part of normal business activities and apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in that person's interests.

Footnotes

  1. M1
    The power to make regulations under Part 1 of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 is conferred on an “appropriate Minister”. Section 1(9)(a) of the Act defines an “appropriate Minister” as including the Secretary of State.
  2. M2
    2018 c. 13.
  3. M3
    1979 c. 2. Amendments have been made to this Act and are cited, where relevant, in respect of the applicable regulations.
  4. M4
    Section 62(1) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018 defines “terrorism” as having the same meaning as in the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (see section 1(1) to (4) of that Act).
  5. M5
    Section 9(5) of the Act defines person as including (in addition to an individual and a body of persons corporate or unincorporate) any organisation and any association or combination of persons.
  6. M6
    2000 c. 11. Section 3 was amended by section 21 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11).
  7. M7
    1971 c. 77. As amended by the Immigration Act 2016 (c. 19), Part 6, section 76 and the Immigration Act 1999 (c. 33), Part 1, section 8.
  8. M8
    S.I. 2008/3231. Schedule 2 was substituted by S.I. 2017/85 and subsequently amended by S.I 2017/697; S.I. 2018/165; and S.I. 2018/939. There are other instruments which amend other parts of the Order, which are not relevant to these Regulations.
  9. M9
    2000 c.8. Section 142D was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c.33), section 4(1).
  10. M10
    Section 142A was inserted by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013, section 4(1).
  11. M11
    Part 4A was inserted by the Financial Services Act 2012 (c.21), section 11(2) and amended by S.I. 2018/135.
  12. M12
    Section 22 was amended by the Financial Guidance and Claims Act (c. 10), section 27(4); the Financial Services Act 202, section 7(1); and S.I. 2018/135.
  13. M13
    S.I. 2001/544 as most recently amended by S.I. 2018/1288 and prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/1403.
  14. M14
    Schedule 2 was amended by the Regulation of Financial Services (Land Transactions) Act 2003 (c. 24), section 1; the Dormant Bank and Building Society Accounts Act 2008 (c.31), section 15 and Schedule 2, paragraph 1; the Financial Services Act 2012, sections 7(2) to (5) and 8, and S.I. 2013/1881; and it is prospectively amended by S.I. 2018/135.
  15. M15
    2006 c.46.
  16. M16
    2014 c.2.
  17. M17
    2005 c.19.
  18. M18
    1979 c.38. Section 1 was amended by the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1985 (c.73), Schedule 1, paragraph 40; the Planning (Consequential Provisions) Act 1990 (c.11); paragraph 28 of Schedule 2 to the Planning (Consequential Provisions) (Scotland) Act 1997 (c.11), Schedule 2, paragraph 28; the Enterprise and Regulatory Reform Act 2013 (c.24), section 70; S.I. 1991/2684; S.I. 2000/121; S.I. 2001/1283.
  19. M19
    Section 1210 was amended by S.I. 2008/565; S.I. 2008/567; S.I. 2008/1950; S.I. 2011/99; 2012/1809; S.I. 2013/3115; S.I. 2017/516; and S.I. 2017/1164.
  20. M20
    Section 77A was inserted by the Finance Act 1987 (c.16), section 10 and amended by S.I. 1992/3095.
  21. M21
    S.I. 1991/2724 as amended by S.I. 1992/3095; S.I. 1993/3014, and S.I. 2011/1043 and is prospectively revoked by S.I. 2018/1247.
  22. M22
    2017 c.3.
  23. M23
    Section 1(8) of the Act defines an “international obligation” as an obligation of the United Kingdom created or arising by or under any international agreement.
  24. M24
    2016 c.25. Amendments have been made by the Policing and Crime Act 2017, Schedule 9(3), para 74; the Data Protection Act 2018 (c. 12), Schedule 19(1), paragraphs 198-203; S.I. 2018/652 and S.I. 2018/1123. Savings provisions are made by S.I. 2017/859. Chapter 1 of Part 9 has been amended by regulation 6 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016 (Commencement No. 3 and Transitory, Transitional and Savings Provisions) Regulations 2017 (S.I. 2017/859).
  25. M25
    2018 c.12. There are amendments to this Act that are not relevant to these Regulations.
  26. M26
    1995 c.46.
  27. M27
    1925 c.86 as amended by Statute Law (Repeals) Act 2004 (c.14), section 1(1) and Schedule 1, Part 17. Other amendments have been made to section 33 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
  28. M28
    1980 c.43. Amendments have been made to Schedule 3 that are not relevant to these Regulations.
  29. M29
    c.15 (N.I.).
  30. M30
    S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26).
  31. M31
    The definition of “assigned matter” in section 1(1) of CEMA was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c.11), Schedule 4, paragraph 22(a), the Scotland Act 2012 (c. 11), section 24(7); and the Wales Act 2014 (c.29), section 7(1).
  32. M32
    Section 138 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60), section 114(1), Schedule 6, paragraph 37 Schedule 7, Part 1; the Finance Act 1988 (c. 39), section 11; the Serious and Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), Schedule 7, paragraph 54; S.I 1989/1341; and S.I. 2007/288.
  33. M33
    “The customs and excise Acts” is defined in section 1 of CEMA.
  34. M34
    Section 145 of CEMA was amended by the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, section 114(1); the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule 4, paragraph 23(a); and S.I. 2014/834. Section 147 was amended by the Criminal Justice Act 1982 (c. 48), Schedule 14, paragraph 42; the Finance Act 1989, section 16(2); and the Criminal Justice Act 2003, Schedule 3, paragraph 50. Section 152 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule 4, paragraph 26, and Schedule 5. Section 155 was amended by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, Schedule, 4, paragraph 27, and Schedule 5.
  35. M35
    The words “7 years” were inserted in section 68(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
  36. M36
    The words “7 years” were inserted in section 170(3)(b) of CEMA by the Finance Act 1988, section 12.
  37. M37
    2005 c.15. Chapter 1 of Part 2 has been amended by the Terrorism Act 2006 (c.11), section 33(3) and (4); the Northern Ireland (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2006 (c.33), sections 26(2) and 30(2) and Schedules 3 and 5; the Bribery Act 2010 (c.23), section 17(2) and Schedule 1; the Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010 (asp 13), section 203 and Schedule 7, para 77; the Crime and Courts Act 2013 (c.22), section 17(4) and Schedule 8, paragraphs 157 and 159; the Criminal Finances Act 2017 (c.22), section 51(1); the Act, section 59(4) and Schedule 3, paragraph 4; and S.I. 2014/823.
  38. M38
    See section 143(4)(f) and (4A), as inserted by the Act, Schedule 3, paragraph 8(1) and (3).
  39. M39
    c.4. Section 1 was amended by the Police Act 1996 (c.16), Schedule 7, paragraph 41; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 1998 (c.32), Schedule 4, paragraph 16; the Police (Northern Ireland) Act 2000 (c.32), section 78(2); the Police Reform Act 2002 (c.30), section 79(3); and by S.I. 2013/602.
  40. M40
    asp.8.
  41. M41
    c.16. Section 27 was amended by the Police and Justice Act 2006 (c. 48), Schedule 2, paragraph 23; the Policing and Crime Act 2009 (c. 26), Schedule 7, paragraphs 1 and 6; and the Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 2011 (c.13), Schedule 16, paragraphs 22 and 26.
  42. M42
    c.27.
  43. M43
    c.23.
  44. M44
    c.40. Section 16 has been amended by various instruments but none are relevant to these Regulations.
  45. M45
    c.11. Designated customs officials are designated, as either a general customs official or a customs revenue official, under sections 8 and 11 of this Act respectively.
  46. M46
    Command 8941.
  47. M47
    S.I. 2011/2742 as amended by S.I. 2018/1149; S.I. 2018/682; S.I. 2017/754; S.I. 2017/560); S.I. 2016/937; S.I. 2013/472), and the Wales Act 2014 (c.29).
  48. M48
    Section 46 of the Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010 provides that any licence granted under the Terrorism (United Nations Measures) Order 2009 (S.I. 2009/1747), and was in force immediately before the coming into force of section 46 has effect as a licence granted under the section 17 of the Terrorist Asset-Freezing etc. Act 2010.
  49. M49
    Regulation 20 of S.I. 2011/2742 provides that licences granted under regulation 7 of S.I. 2010/1197 have effect as if they were granted under regulation 9 of S.I. 2011/2742.
  50. M50
    S.I. 2011/2742.
  51. M51
    That list was most recently set out in the Annex to Council Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/24 of 8 January 2019.
  52. M52
    2010. c 2. The Terrorist Asset-Freezing (Temporary Provisions) Act 2010 was repealed by the Terrorist Freezing etc. Act 2010, Schedule 2.
  53. M53
    1986 c.45.
  54. M54
    S.I. 1989/2405 (N.I. 19).
  55. I1
    Reg. 1 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  56. I2
    Reg. 2 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  57. I3
    Reg. 3 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  58. I4
    Reg. 4 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  59. I5
    Reg. 5 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  60. I6
    Reg. 6 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  61. I7
    Reg. 7 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  62. I8
    Reg. 8 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  63. I9
    Reg. 9 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  64. I10
    Reg. 10 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  65. I11
    Reg. 11 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  66. I12
    Reg. 12 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  67. I13
    Reg. 13 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  68. I14
    Reg. 14 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  69. I15
    Reg. 15 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  70. I16
    Reg. 16 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  71. I17
    Reg. 17 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  72. I18
    Reg. 18 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  73. I19
    Reg. 19 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  74. I20
    Reg. 20 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  75. I21
    Reg. 21 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  76. I22
    Reg. 22 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  77. I23
    Reg. 23 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  78. I24
    Reg. 24 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  79. I25
    Reg. 25 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  80. I26
    Reg. 26 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  81. I27
    Reg. 27 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  82. I28
    Reg. 28 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  83. I29
    Reg. 29 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  84. I30
    Reg. 30 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  85. I31
    Reg. 31 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  86. I32
    Reg. 32 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  87. I33
    Reg. 33 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  88. I34
    Reg. 34 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  89. I35
    Reg. 35 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  90. I36
    Reg. 36 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  91. I37
    Reg. 37 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  92. I38
    Reg. 38 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  93. I39
    Reg. 39 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  94. I40
    Reg. 40 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  95. I41
    Reg. 41 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  96. I42
    Reg. 42 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  97. I43
    Reg. 43 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  98. I44
    Reg. 44 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  99. I45
    Reg. 45 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  100. I46
    Reg. 46 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  101. I47
    Reg. 47 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  102. I48
    Reg. 48 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  103. I49
    Reg. 49 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  104. I50
    Reg. 50 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  105. I51
    Reg. 51 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  106. I52
    Reg. 52 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  107. I53
    Reg. 53 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  108. I54
    Reg. 54 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  109. I55
    Reg. 55 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  110. I56
    Reg. 56 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  111. I57
    Reg. 57 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  112. I58
    Reg. 58 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  113. I59
    Reg. 59 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  114. I60
    Reg. 60 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  115. I61
    Reg. 61 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  116. I62
    Reg. 62 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  117. I63
    Sch. para. 1 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  118. I64
    Sch. para. 2 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  119. I65
    Sch. para. 3 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  120. I66
    Sch. para. 4 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  121. I67
    Sch. para. 5 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  122. I68
    Sch. para. 6 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  123. I69
    Sch. para. 7 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  124. I70
    Sch. para. 8 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  125. I71
    Sch. para. 9 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  126. I72
    Sch. para. 10 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  127. I73
    Sch. para. 11 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  128. I74
    Sch. para. 12 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  129. I75
    Sch. para. 13 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  130. I76
    Sch. para. 14 not in force at made date, see reg. 1(2)
  131. I77
    Reg. 1 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(a)
  132. I78
    Reg. 2 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(b)
  133. I79
    Reg. 4 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(c)
  134. I80
    Reg. 5 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(d)
  135. I81
    Reg. 6 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(e)
  136. I82
    Reg. 7 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(f)
  137. I83
    Reg. 8 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(g)
  138. I84
    Sch. para. 1 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  139. I85
    Sch. para. 2 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  140. I86
    Sch. para. 3 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  141. I87
    Sch. para. 4 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  142. I88
    Sch. para. 5 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  143. I89
    Sch. para. 6 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  144. I90
    Sch. para. 7 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  145. I91
    Sch. para. 8 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  146. I92
    Sch. para. 9 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  147. I93
    Sch. para. 10 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  148. I94
    Sch. para. 11 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  149. I95
    Sch. para. 12 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  150. I96
    Sch. para. 13 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  151. I97
    Sch. para. 14 in force at 25.3.2019 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(1)(h)
  152. C1
    Regulations extended (British overseas territories) (with modifications) (31.12.2020 immediately after both S.I. 2020/591, S.I. 2020/950 and S.I. 2020/1289 have come into force) by The Counter-Terrorism (International Sanctions) (Overseas Territories) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1588), art. 2, Sch. 1, Sch. 2 (as amended (11.12.2025) by S.I. 2025/1307, Sch. 9); S.I. 2020/1514, regs. 5, 17, 21
  153. I98
    Reg. 18 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  154. I99
    Reg. 56 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  155. I100
    Reg. 33 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  156. I101
    Reg. 39 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  157. I102
    Reg. 43 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  158. I103
    Reg. 47 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  159. I104
    Reg. 48 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  160. I105
    Reg. 45 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  161. I106
    Reg. 46 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  162. I107
    Reg. 49 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  163. I108
    Reg. 50 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  164. I109
    Reg. 58 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  165. I110
    Reg. 59 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  166. I111
    Reg. 60 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  167. I112
    Reg. 3 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  168. I113
    Reg. 9 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  169. I114
    Reg. 10 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  170. I115
    Reg. 11 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  171. I116
    Reg. 12 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  172. I117
    Reg. 13 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  173. I118
    Reg. 14 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  174. I119
    Reg. 15 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  175. I120
    Reg. 16 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  176. I121
    Reg. 17 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  177. I122
    Reg. 19 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  178. I123
    Reg. 20 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  179. I124
    Reg. 21 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  180. I125
    Reg. 22 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  181. I126
    Reg. 23 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  182. I127
    Reg. 24 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  183. I128
    Reg. 25 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  184. I129
    Reg. 26 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  185. I130
    Reg. 27 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  186. I131
    Reg. 28 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  187. I132
    Reg. 29 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  188. I133
    Reg. 30 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  189. I134
    Reg. 31 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  190. I135
    Reg. 32 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  191. I136
    Reg. 34 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  192. I137
    Reg. 35 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  193. I138
    Reg. 36 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  194. I139
    Reg. 37 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  195. I140
    Reg. 38 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  196. I141
    Reg. 40 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  197. I142
    Reg. 41 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  198. I143
    Reg. 42 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  199. I144
    Reg. 44 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  200. I145
    Reg. 51 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  201. I146
    Reg. 52 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  202. I147
    Reg. 53 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  203. I148
    Reg. 54 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  204. I149
    Reg. 55 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  205. I150
    Reg. 57 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  206. I151
    Reg. 61 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  207. I152
    Reg. 62 in force at 31.12.2020 by S.I. 2019/627, reg. 11(2); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  208. F1
    Reg. 29A inserted (31.12.2020 immediately after IP completion day) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No.3) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/950), regs. 1(2), 7(2); S.I. 2020/1514, reg. 17
  209. F2
    Regs. 60A, 60B inserted (31.12.2020 immediately after IP completion day) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Consequential Provisions) (Amendment) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/1289), regs. 1(2), 3(2); S.I. 2020/1514, reg. 21
  210. F3
    Reg. 7(4): comma omitted (31.12.2020 immediately after IP completion day) by virtue of The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/591), regs. 1(2), 7(2); S.I. 2020/1514, reg. 5
  211. F4
    Words in reg. 18(3) substituted (31.12.2020 immediately after IP completion day) by virtue of The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2020 (S.I. 2020/591), regs. 1(2), 7(2); S.I. 2020/1514, reg. 5
  212. F5
    Words in reg. 25(1)(a)-(d) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/843), regs. 1(2), 5(a); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  213. F6
    Word in reg. 26(3)(a) inserted (31.12.2020) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/843), regs. 1(2), 5(b); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)
  214. F7
    Words in reg. 42(5) substituted (28.4.2022) by The Criminal Justice Act 2003 (Commencement No. 33) and Sentencing Act 2020 (Commencement No. 2) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/500), regs. 1(2), 5(2), Sch. Pt. 2
  215. F8
    Reg. 40A inserted (9.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(2), 7(5)
  216. F9
    Words in reg. 6(3)(k) substituted (9.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(2), 7(2)
  217. F10
    Words in reg. 41(1) inserted (9.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(2), 7(6)(a)
  218. F11
    Words in reg. 41(2) substituted (9.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(2), 7(6)(b)
  219. F12
    Words in reg. 41(4) substituted (9.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(2), 7(6)(c)(i)
  220. F13
    Words in reg. 41(4) substituted (9.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(2), 7(6)(c)(ii)
  221. F14
    Words in reg. 34(5)(b) substituted (9.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(2), 7(3)
  222. F15
    Reg. 35(3A)-(3C) inserted (30.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(3)(f), 7(4)(b)
  223. F16
    Reg. 35(1)(h)(i) inserted (30.8.2022) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2022 (S.I. 2022/819), regs. 1(3)(f), 7(4)(a)
  224. F17
    Words in reg. 42(1)(a) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(2), Sch. Pt. 2
  225. F18
    Words in reg. 42(2)(a) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(2), Sch. Pt. 2
  226. F19
    Words in reg. 42(3)(a) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(2), Sch. Pt. 2
  227. F20
    Words in reg. 42(5) substituted (7.2.2023 at 12.00 p.m.) by The Judicial Review and Courts Act 2022 (Magistrates’ Court Sentencing Powers) Regulations 2023 (S.I. 2023/149), regs. 1(2), 2(2), Sch. Pt. 2
  228. F21
    Pt. 3A inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(4)
  229. F22
    Reg. 31A inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(5)
  230. F23
    Reg. 32A inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(6)
  231. F24
    Words in reg. 2 inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(2)
  232. F25
    Reg. 5(1)(aa) inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(3)
  233. F26
    Words in reg. 40(1)(b)(i) inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(7)
  234. F27
    Words in reg. 42(3) inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(8)
  235. F28
    Reg. 47(3A)-(3C) inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(9)
  236. F29
    Words in reg. 57 inserted (5.6.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/644), regs. 1(2), 7(10)
  237. F30
    Reg. 31B inserted (3.10.2024) by The Mali (Sanctions) (EU Exit) (Amendment) and Sanctions (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/946), regs. 1(2), 3(3)
  238. F31
    Reg. 31(2)-(5) omitted (3.10.2024) by virtue of The Mali (Sanctions) (EU Exit) (Amendment) and Sanctions (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/946), regs. 1(2), 3(2)
  239. F32
    Reg. 29ZA inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(5)
  240. F33
    Reg. 34A inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(8)
  241. F34
    Reg. 13(3A) inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(2)
  242. F35
    Reg. 15(3A) inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(3)
  243. F36
    Reg. 29(10)(11) inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(4)
  244. F37
    Words in reg. 31B(6) inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(6)(a)
  245. F38
    Word in reg. 31B(6) substituted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(6)(b)
  246. F39
    Words in reg. 31B(6) inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(6)(c)
  247. F40
    Word in reg. 31B(6) substituted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(6)(d)
  248. F41
    Words in reg. 34(1)(a)(ii) substituted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(7)(a)
  249. F42
    Reg. 34(4A)-(4C) inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(7)(b)
  250. F43
    Reg. 34(6A) inserted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(7)(c)
  251. F44
    Words in reg. 40A(1) substituted (5.12.2024) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2), 9(10)
  252. F45
    Reg. 5A inserted (18.4.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/394), regs. 1(2), 8(3)
  253. F46
    Words in reg. 5(1) inserted (18.4.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/394), regs. 1(2), 8(2)
  254. F47
    Reg. 6 heading substituted (18.4.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/394), regs. 1(2), 8(4)(a)
  255. F48
    Reg. 6(1) omitted (18.4.2025) by virtue of The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/394), regs. 1(2), 8(4)(b)
  256. F49
    Words in reg. 6(2) substituted (18.4.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/394), regs. 1(2), 8(4)(c)
  257. F50
    Reg. 8(3)(3A) substituted for reg. 8(3) (18.4.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/394), regs. 1(2), 8(5)(a)
  258. F51
    Reg. 8(4) substituted (18.4.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/394), regs. 1(2), 8(5)(b)
  259. F52
    Reg. 35(3D)-(3K) inserted (14.5.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2)(h), 9(9)(b)
  260. F53
    Reg. 35(1)(j)-(m) inserted (14.5.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2)(h), 9(9)(a)
  261. F54
    Reg. 35(5)(da) inserted (14.5.2025) by The Sanctions (EU Exit) (Miscellaneous Amendments) (No. 2) Regulations 2024 (S.I. 2024/1157), regs. 1(2)(h), 9(9)(c)
  262. F55
    Words in reg. 29ZA(8) substituted (19.1.2026) by The Public Offers and Admissions to Trading (Amendment and Consequential and Transitional Provisions) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1076), reg. 1(3), Sch. para. 17(a); S.I. 2025/1078, reg. 5(b)
  263. F56
    Words in reg. 29ZA(8) omitted (19.1.2026) by virtue of The Public Offers and Admissions to Trading (Amendment and Consequential and Transitional Provisions) Regulations 2025 (S.I. 2025/1076), reg. 1(3), Sch. para. 17(b); S.I. 2025/1078, reg. 5(b)